/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/askhistorians
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Compared to countries like England or Germany, was there more or less looting that took place in Imperial Japan towards the end of WWII, when the bombing runs were common?
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How did the Muslims of the more sparsely-populated Arabian peninsula conquer more populated regions like Syria, Mesopotamia and Egypt so rapidly after the prophet Mohammad's death?
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Was it ever possible for Castile to integrate all of Iberia & Spain into a single Kingdom during the Iberian Union (or the 16th/17th century in general)? When specifically was this most possible, if it ever was?
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Did the Roman Empire use any propaganda or provide incentives in order to get its citizens to colonize new territories?
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